But let's make a thought experiment. Let's say that someone kidnap your familly and order you to have sex with him/her. That's rape, and he's the rapist.
Now let's say that he or she order you to go to the nearest party and have sex with someone. Clearly you have still been raped. But who is guilty. Will you held the guy/gal you sleep accountable for your rape even though he/she knew nothing about the situation?
Why is this relevant? Rape still occurred, that's all I'm arguing here.
Now if someone drink a bit too much but while being still coherent enthousiastically sleep with someone they wouldn't normally, there is no way you can call it rape.
What does this have to do with the thought experiment? I'm legitimately confused on this one - I'm not just asserting that they're unrelated, I literally can't tell what link you're trying to make.
One of three things is true:
There's an inherent contradiction in what you mean by "drinks a bit too much" and "while being still coherent". In this case, you mean to say that somebody's ability to consent is impaired but they're still fully capable of giving consent. I doubt this is the case.
-OR-
Our actor is some sort of omniscient superbeing, who's capable of discerning a person's true intent in spite of whatever conditions may be preventing them from being aware of it themselves, and preventing them from communicating it. I suspect this is actually what you're assuming - that you, as a person at a party, can safely assume that a person who has sex with you went to that party with the intent of having sex, and got drunk aware that they might make a decision they might later regret, and consciously decided that it was a risk they were willing to take. I don't think you can make that assumption, and I'll come back to this later.
-OR-
I can certainly say that rape
may have occurred, but it may be the case that it didn't. Certainly, it can't be rejected out of hand just because we assume that the actor had no intent to rape. I would need more information. Remember, context is everything.
In any case, as I was saying, you can't assume that everybody at a party has thought through all possible consequences of their actions. Yeah, it's a fair enough bet that somebody at, say, a college party got drunk and was planning on having some sex anyway. It's not a
sure bet, though. It'd be insane to expect everybody to devote that kind of planning to every social decision they ever make. It's your job as a decent person to put effort toward ensuring that you're not taking advantage of somebody, even unwittingly. Again, unless you are an omniscient superbeing who can know more about a person than they, themselves, do, as soon as look at them.
EDIT: Whether or not a person can consent is related to how drunk they are, but it's certainly not fair to say that all drunk people can consent or that no drunk people can consent. As I said pages ago, it's a slope from one to the other, requiring increasing degrees of care as you go from capable to incapable, and implying an increasing risk. But none of that changes whether or not harm has been done.
EDIT: Let's arbitrarily assign names A and B to two different people. Now, regarding whether or not B has been raped, A's conditions are irrelevant. It doesn't matter how drunk A was, or what A's intent was. Those things might matter for determining how blameworthy A is for the rape, and they might matter for determining whether or not A was also raped. Those are irrelevant to this scenario. Also, it clearly isn't rape if B has no retrospective objections, so situations where both parties were satisfied with the night are also irrelevant.
B remains responsible for their actions, but whether those actions can still convey consent legitimately are the point of disagreement. Right?