Eh. Take two variables x,y ∈ ℝ and let the function f(x,y) = xy.
If you can show that lim(x,y)->(0,0) f(x,y) = L exists where L ∈ ℝ, then you have a reason to define f(0,0) = L as a "removable singularity".
If it doesn't then 00 will remain indeterminate and whatever you define it as will not have any effect on the general conclusion.
Since the L = 1 when approaching from y = 0 and L = 0 when approaching from x = 0, the limit does not exist.
Thus by defining it as something else in a specific context, you're simply choosing a specific approach direction. In the case of 00 = 1, you're following the y = 0 approach direction (or some other direction where L = 1 such as y = x).
Would you at least read my posts on that before giving such a response¿ I spent already three posts on explaining that the limit is irrelevant.
Why would it be irrelevant? It's the very reason why it is indeterminate. As such, the value of 0
0 cannot be determined without knowing the context. Formally speaking, anyway.
Granted, in many of the cases where 0
0 = 1, the context
is known either explicitly or implicitly but straight up saying 0
0 = 1 without context is erroneous especially in analysis and should be discouraged unless there are plans to change the definition of indeterminate forms (which there aren't AFAIK).
The formal (context-free) value of 0
0 is therefore not known and cannot be known because of the results from the limits.
Just to steal an example from the wiki: lim
t->0+ (e
-1/t)
at = e
-a. This can assume any positive non-zero value depending on the value of a.