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Author Topic: Mathematics Help Thread  (Read 228976 times)

Zrk2

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Re: Mathematics Help Thread
« Reply #420 on: February 09, 2011, 08:36:01 pm »

Curse all you advanced mathers. I'm currently doing Data Management. Easy class. I look at these equations and go:

 :o ...  :-X ...  :'( Then I remember that I'll be taught how to solve them before they get thrown at me. And equations always look more scary before they are explained to you. Like:

Spoiler (click to show/hide)

In grade nine I shat myself looking at it. Now I laugh and call it an easy question.
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Tellemurius

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Re: Mathematics Help Thread
« Reply #421 on: February 09, 2011, 08:37:16 pm »

just remember the stupid mnemonic and you're good.

Christes

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Re: Mathematics Help Thread
« Reply #422 on: February 10, 2011, 03:32:47 am »

And equations always look more scary before they are explained to you.

More or less true at every level.  Though they eventually stop being equations as such.  And eventually you end up teaching them to yourself.

just remember the stupid mnemonic and you're good.

Do tell.  I only know of one.  I nearly break out laughing every time:

Spoiler (click to show/hide)
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Sowelu

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Re: Mathematics Help Thread
« Reply #423 on: February 10, 2011, 04:14:57 am »

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Oh my god, you are my hero.
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Tellemurius

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Re: Mathematics Help Thread
« Reply #424 on: February 10, 2011, 09:30:29 am »

thats awesome where was that when i was in high school :P

Miggy

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Re: Mathematics Help Thread
« Reply #425 on: February 10, 2011, 09:43:11 am »

Posting this here from my linear algebra class. Every week we get a "nut" to crack. This week's nut is:


Personally I haven't got much of a clue. The definition of linear independence is that for the set of vectors there must be only one set of constants that fulfill the term: c1*v1 + c2*v2... cn*vn = 0, and that must be zero.

However, how I can get to there from: i1*j1 + i2*j2 .... in*jn < 0 ?

And yes, I did write that into an actual text editor and screen-shot it so I could get the notation correct... Only to find out I could probably get the same with the forum code. :P
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Phmcw

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Re: Mathematics Help Thread
« Reply #426 on: February 10, 2011, 10:21:22 am »

hmm one vector and his opposite isn't a counterexample because of the S+1
my take at the demonstration bellow
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« Last Edit: February 10, 2011, 12:03:10 pm by Phmcw »
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Re: Mathematics Help Thread
« Reply #427 on: February 10, 2011, 09:15:06 pm »

Has anyone here ever taken any of the actuarial exams?  I'm wondering if someone could recommend some study material.
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Tellemurius

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Re: Mathematics Help Thread
« Reply #428 on: February 10, 2011, 09:21:50 pm »

what the hell are those?

ZetaX

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Re: Mathematics Help Thread
« Reply #429 on: February 10, 2011, 10:44:51 pm »

Posting this here from my linear algebra class.  [...]
This is a mess without LaTeX, but anyway:

Let's write [x,y] for x^T * y (just looks better), use w for v_s (yes, s, not s+1) and t for [w,w] (this is >0). Let U be the hyperplane orthogonal to w, so U = { x | <x,w>=0 }. Then let p be the projection onto U, so p(v) = v - ([v,w]/t)w [an easy check gives that this is in U and it is a linear map].
We are given that <v_i,v_j> is <0 for i,j from 1 to s+1 and not equal to s. Thus
<p(v_i) , p(v_j)> =
= [v_i-([v_i,w]/t)w , v_j-([v_j,w]/t)w] =
= [v_i,v_j] - [v_i,w]*[v_j,w]/t - [v_j,w]*[v_i,w]/t + [v_i,w]*[v_j,w]*[w,w]/t² =
= [v_i,v_j] - [v_i,w]*[v_j,w]/t.
But [v_i,w] and [v_j,w] are <0 and t >0, thus - [v_i,w]*[v_j,w]/t is <0, too. Together with [v_i,v_j] <0, this gives that <p(v_i) , p(v_j)> is <0.

We have shown that after applying p, we got the same setting (but with one vector less as w is sent to 0 by p). So let u_1=p(v_1), ..., u_(s-1)=p(v_(s-1) and u_s=p(v_(s+1)) and we still get [u_i,u_j] <0 for i not equal to j. By induction on s, we may assume that we have already proven the result for s' = s-1. In other words, u_1, ..., u_(s-1) are independent. This means nothing else than p(v_1), ..., p(v_(s-1)) being independent. As a result, v_1, ..., v_(s-1) are independent, too (any dependence of the v_i would by p get an dependence of the p(v_i)). But w is independent from p(v_1), ..., p(v_(s-1)) as it is orthogonal to the plane U where they live in. But v_i and p(v_i) only differ by a multiple of w, thus also v_1, ..., v_(s-1) are independet from w=v_s, which we wanted to prove.
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Vector

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Re: Mathematics Help Thread
« Reply #430 on: February 10, 2011, 11:04:58 pm »

There's this problem I've been working on for the past... while.  Don't laugh, I'm panicking a bit because it's due tomorrow and I didn't start it soon enough.  Also because it's a pain to use the ancient Greek methods.  Also because I'm nearly certain that this is more than trivial.


Anyway, we've got a cylinder with base C and an inscribed prism inside it, Q--i.e. the base P of Q is inscribed in C.  Both of these figures have height h.

I need to prove that the volume V of the cylinder is not greater than the height of h times the area of C:

V > h[a(C)] is false.  I already proved that V < h[a(C)] is false, through pretty trivial methods (though I can provide a proof if necessary).  Basically, the proof method we've been ordered to use is "proceed by abusing trichotomy and double reductio ad absurdum."  So no, I can't just calculus this to death.

What I know is that for every e > 0 there is a P so that

e > a(C) - a(P) > 0,

i.e. the limit of the area of the polygons approaches the area of the circle, and that the volume of the prism is given by h[a(P)].


My problem with this is that I can't figure out how to relate V to the rest of the information in any meaningful way.  It's just kind of floating there.

... In fact, I'm currently thinking that I set this up wrong.  If anyone has any ideas, please just give me a hint; I really don't want the complete proof, just to figure out where my thinking is screwy.  Thanks in advance.


EDIT: Yeah, I was about to post this question somewhere else and then I suddenly realized what I was doing wrong.  Sorry about that.

DOUBLE-EDIT: And then I was wrong again  ::)  Advice would be great.
« Last Edit: February 11, 2011, 12:09:17 am by Vector »
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Nivim

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Re: Mathematics Help Thread
« Reply #431 on: February 11, 2011, 12:05:48 am »

 You've earned a reputation as one ridiculously good at math, so no one wants to approach a problem you're tackling (not to mention one that eschews the "normal complicated" math they are used to). Although despite knowing almost nothing about the proofs behind your problem, I think it would help if you at least summarized what methods you found to be wrong.
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eerr

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Re: Mathematics Help Thread
« Reply #432 on: February 11, 2011, 12:09:41 am »

V= h pie r^2

R being both the radius, and the longest line you can draw from the inside to the outside in the pyramidal solid.

hint(I think?): calculus is all about dividing things up into peices, anyway.
You've earned a reputation as one ridiculously good at math, so no one wants to approach a problem you're tackling (not to mention one that eschews the "normal complicated" math they are used to). Although despite knowing almost nothing about the proofs behind your problem, I think it would help if you at least summarized what methods you found to be wrong.

It's not what Vector is using wrong, it's what she is supposed to be using, that remains unclear.
It's literally stuff my calculus teacher told us flat out, and did not make us do problems about.

Would be ironic if the answer is in the book though.


Or if this actually has nothing at all to do with calculus class.
« Last Edit: February 11, 2011, 12:11:18 am by eerr »
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Heron TSG

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Re: Mathematics Help Thread
« Reply #433 on: February 11, 2011, 12:12:52 am »

Okay, you want V to be related to something? I can attempt to do that, though I don't fully understand what you're trying to say.

The volume of a cylinder is this, as you know.

V = (πR2) multiplied by the height, H.

Thus...

V = (πR2)H
H = (πR2)/V
R = ((V/H)/π)1/2

I don't know what exactly you need help with, not having done that type of problem before. Maybe one of these is the formula you need, though. You never know.
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Vector

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Re: Mathematics Help Thread
« Reply #434 on: February 11, 2011, 12:16:19 am »

Okay, let me make this clear:

we still don't know what pi is.  We don't have the formula.  I'm trying to prove this sucker with ancient methodology, and they didn't have pi yet--as I said in my post, those things are literally the only things I can use.

Attempted methods in the next post.
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