...What is this sorcery?
Indeterminates. Stuff involving zero or infinity.
As I understand it, when solving for lim(f(x)/g(x)) and f(x) approaches 0 or infinity and g(x) approaches 0 or infinity as x approaches a, then the limit is 0/0 or infinity/infinity or infinity/0 or etc, which "may or may not exist" as described by my textbook, so it's called an indeterminate form. And L'Ho(s)pital's rule is a thing that lets you solve for these limits by using derivatives of f and g.
It's, like, y'know, magic and stuff.
Sort of. ln(0) is undefined. Remember that ln(x) = integral from 1 to x of 1/t dt. It's clearly undefined at x=0. ln(0) doesn't represent anything. Now, you could say that lim(x->0+)(ln(x))=-infinity, but the question you've been given clearly doesn't ask for any particular directionality in its approach.
Though I am curious as whether you derived that from some earlier step in a problem or whether that equation was explicitly given, because you'll quickly find that using L'Hopital's rule is going to leave you in a rather nasty situation.
Also, it's L'Hopital, not L'Hospital.
Whoops. Left out the plus. Question was lim(x->0+)(ln(x)), and the book the textbook gives is negative infinity. Looking at how I solved it in an earlier homework assignment and I just went with ln0=0 to get 0/0, then solved with derivatives and L'ho's rule from there to get (1/x)1=1/x which substituted is 1/0=infinity.
And my book says L'hospital. ¯\_(ツ)_/¯