Question on photons: if light indeed has an associatable "particle", wouldn't that mean that if we take an object far enough away (think individual stars in other galaxies), then it will become invisible? (or rather begin to become invisible, blinking in and out of view as fewer and fewer photons hit the observer in any given time frame; would also mean the visibility of the object you're looking at is proportional to the diameter of the outer lens of your observing device) Wouldn't that then mean it is not a wave, which would only change in intensity with distance?
ok, all questions are answered with yes, apart from the last one, which I'm not sure I understand. Wave's intensity(I'm sure you mean amplitude) if emited from a point-like source(e.g.star) in three dimensions falls with distance in the same fashion as a photon flux(amount of photons passing a surface - e.g.your retina, telescope's aperture) does. That is, it's inversely proportional to the square of distance. It's a characteristic of geometry of 3D space, more than wave/particle question.
Light (and other things) is the vibration of the other medium, the "energy" one. Which would explain the differences in behavior when being passed through various substances. It also allows to understand the reason why certain materials allow light to pass while others block it.
the medium in question is not some "energy"(or aether, as some proposed), but electromagnetic field.
The property of light and other forms of EM radiation to pass/not pass through objects is IIRC related to said material's molecular structure and light's wave-like behaviour. It was something about a wave having to be of a similar (wave)lenght to the atoms/molecules in the material in question, in order to be absorbed/reflected. I'm not entirely sure if I'm not pulling this out of my hat, though.
(Virex ninja'd me here, if you'll check
this link, which he provided, it explains it well enough)
There are the questions then about the effects observed, specifically light being subject to gravity
It's a geometry question again. If you'll try and read the article on wikipedia(even the introductory one) on General Relativity, then you'll see that non-euclidean geometry of space-time is what makes light be affected by gravity. Basicly, when gravity bends space-time, light travels the least-time(sort of like shortest) route.
Einstein himself wrote a popular(sort of) article on the subject of his theory, in a non-crazy-scientific way. It's still not an easy read, of course.
What if it is possible for gravity, as one of the most basic forces in the Universe, to affect the energy medium as well? Would kinda begin to explain the thing that's been bugging me - gravity exerts a force on everything around it without expending the energy of the object in any obvious way. Of course, it throws up other questions, like what happens to all the energy being absorbed, does the object gain mass from energy, etc, etc.
1.four basic forces of the universe(strong, weak, electromagnetic, gravity) operate on their own fields and use their own gauge particles(e.g. photon, W boson, graviton-still just theoricaly). As far as I remember, these do not affect each other directly.
2.mass generates gravitational field in the same fashion that electron generates an electric field, it's not that exceptional at all.
3.there's no need to expend any energy, as long as there's no energy gain. By moving away from the field source you gain potential energy, that you can later exchange for some other kind(kinetic, most likely). However when you are stationary(like on Earth's surface), you do not gain or loss any energy.