Thank you for the response Trekkin. You have raised some very good counterpoints which..is good for the debate, I suppose.
you are right, if I am to define a theory under which telepathy may be possible, I should do so completely and concisely first, shame on me for forgetting the scientific method..So, to reply to your second paragraph-The way I think of mathematics is wildly different from most people, so that may be an possible reason for the miscommunication. So if we want to define things quantitatively most times, is your suggestion this;to instead define it qualitatively? Honest question.
Next, on to the 'mathemetical sum of said equation part'. I did not mean to imply this, but I did, my apologies. What I meant by that was that the supposed sum of such an equation wouldn't be native to the current, state-of-the-art even human understanding or psychological understanding. We wouldn't be able to for a long time, unless we shortened such a timeline by another alternative. Next, when you say 'greater predictive power', I may interject that that the whole technique, theory, thesis IS to an extent 'predictive power' in and of itself. There could be a million other explanations of the data, but it leads to the same thing-a natural or learned ability to predict things to a certain extent, but there are so many factors that go into that, that the variables themselves couldn't(or just havn't, and should be)be quantified, or maybe even the qualitative variables too.
Next, that is precisely what I'm saying as well, this supposed phenomena would be easier understood in a group of conceptual factors, rather than put into 0's and 1's, or variable, or what have you. as far as your third point-Your right, calculating the sample size would be impossible at this point in time. The 'effect size' is something that I don't know if would be a proper term for this scenario-or the signal-to-noise ratio. So here is a small, short basis that I propose-
The human brain has scientifically to operate on certain frequencies, which range widely and have different variable effects on the human psychology and physiology, at the very least. Now, it is a scientific fact(correct me if I'm wrong) that everything in the universe 'vibrates' or 'oscillates', as well as meaning it does so on a certain frequency, or wavelength. My theory is that when you naturally or learn to align your frequency through muscle or neuroplasticity based methods, to the other individuals, then that is what creates the basis for everything further along in the theory. Make your counterpoints, if you would.
Finally, the well-known explanation of the phenomena you speak of is true, but by proxy would you agree, or disagree that the explanation itself that you just provided is a proof of the probability factor of the theory? But as I said earlier and as you mentioned-we may be talking quality-wise, not quantity.
Just thought I would take the time to actually type an educated to the best of my ability response.