Alright, with that out of the way--
See the other part of my argument-- even a non-physical criteron, like attainment of higher education, will ultimately lead to physical discrimination, due to how humans operate.
By what criterion are you going to determine eligibility to vote, and what are the consequences of choosing that criterion? Are those consequences logically in line with the implied constraints and goals of the "general" suffrage requirement?
You might be sadly forced to accept that the concept is not workable. Either you accept a double standard, or you have to discard the idea of limitations on who is eligible.
Like I say, multiple paths would be the way to go. Military service, civil service, PhD completion etc etc. Giving something and getting voting rights back in return.
What, exactly, is wrong with that?
As a man with near perfect SAT scores I'd like to remind you that tests are bullshit. I mean I'm a huge slacker, lazy, unproductive, mentally ill, in a perfect society people like myself would not be allowed to breed, let alone vote. And yet this system advantages people like myself over hardworking citizens. Tell me, how high does your score have to be? Do you have one in mind? Have you, incidentally, ever taken this test? Would I be correct in assuming that any hypothetical restrictions wouldn't include your score?
I'm not suggesting a test, I've never suggested a test. I'm merely defining the terms around a test.
And your problems sound like they start and end with you. Would you join military service to gain the right to vote? Would you attend and complete a PhD? Would you give something to your country in order to get the ability to have a say in it?
So can I just opt out of the test than? No? Than what is the point? And if the test isn't optional, than why play wordgames? You take a test: if you pass, you can vote; if you don't pass, you can't vote. Am I wrong?
Yes, you're wrong because you misunderstand the concept.
Let's say we have a man who is clearly on the borderline of an intellectual disability. We have a law in place that says that no one with a severe learning difficulty like this has the right to vote since they can't truly understand what they've voting for. We issue them a test to see their comprehension of issues and English. They fail that test and we disenfranchise them.
That's unlimited suffrage that has been removed due to some circumstance. We do the same with felons.
Do you understand now?
(Unfortunately, in the history of America people felt that all black people were on the borderline of an intellectual disability.)
More broadly speaking, from the perspective of the US this can be safely rejected, given the founding principle "No Taxation without Representation".
What if someone doesn't pay tax, then? Should they be disenfranchised? "No Representation without Taxation"?
Yeah, it's a terrible idea, mainly because whoever represents those who are able to pass the test has a vested interest in reducing the ability of additional people to pass the test. e.g. if it's a literacy test then leaders have a vested interest in reducing the literacy of non-voter populations. They can then reduce subsidies/tax-breaks/etc to those groups while promising more subsidies/tax-breaks/etc to the remaining "voters". If you want to go against that you actually need to take money out of the pockets of eligible voters in order to subsidize the non-voters. Which would be political suicide.
That's very conspiracy theory-esque. I imagine you'd be shocked how many people like their own country and want to see it thrive.