He means that it doesn't prove it to anyone else.
I suppose he can clarify, if that's what he meant. But re-reading his post in the context of his second sentence and the preceding Plato's Cave reference, looks to me like he's using "empirical" to mean "objectively, fundamentally real, independant of observation."
Which is not at all what it means. Weird made the same error several thread pages ago.
No one in he history of the world has ever been able to definitively and/or directly confirm consciousness in more than one test subject.
Yes.
What I mean is that as far as I can tell you're saying "I have subjective expeirence therefore I have subjective experience."
Yes. But now let's look at your statement I was objecting to:
Again, your empirical observation of your own qualia is hardly proof qualia exists because you have a limited perspective.
If you are experienencing qualia, then yes you are experiencing qualia. By definition, if you are experiencing qualia, qualia exists. Like you point out, it's a circular statement. X=X. I think, therefore I think. I observe, therefore observation is occurring.
"Limited perspective" is irrelevant.
You are claiming that that the fact of observation is not proof that observation occurred. You are claiming that X does not imply X.
But beyond that some of hte other posts are right. We're arguing on very ill-defined terms. This is one of those "how many angels can fit on the head of a pin" arguments.
No. The fact of experience is the
only thing that we can truly know for certain. That I am having an experience is a thing that I can absolutely, definitely know, because I am experiencing it. The experiencing of it
does not necessarily mean that there's any genuinely external world out there for me to experience. All of reality could be a hallucination. Yes, its is an
unjustifiable, illogical statement of faith to say that "I observe X, therefore X is correct and valid."
But the fact that experience is being had, that is
certain. And it is the
only thing that is certain.