I'd like to weigh in with a small 'What the hell?' upon reading the opinions of both Brood and Taricus. Please excuse my strong language, but again: What the hell?
You both are assuming that allowing military access (and not only military access, but military access with the explicit goal of attacking another country) wouldn't be seen as attack by the country giving military access.
To use the house example from before: Let's assume there are three people: A, B and C. You are A, B wants to kill you (everyone knows that). Now, you are safe inside your house, with your garden secure. Then, C allows B through his house and onto your ground with a knife. Know what I mean?
To look for parallels: During WW2, the Swiss was neutral. Both Germany and the Allies went through Swiss airspace. Both German and Allied planes were forced to land. Due to that, both Germany and the US threatened to attack/bomb the Swiss. See what I mean? Here, a neutral country did what it was allowed to (force planes to land inside its own airspace), and both the other powers didn't really like it. Now, imagine the same, but the Swiss'd let troops march through.
Ok I'll make it simple.
Cause : We attack through Capia but Capia does not attack.
Effect : Morovia attacks Capia for allowing passage
Effect : Capia attacks Morovia in retaliation.
Effect : Morovia is fighting twice as many men men now.
Please answer the following questions:
a) What does Capia have to gain from such a military transit right? Why should they allow us to do so?b) If they do this, why wouldn't Capia see the same and NOT give us transit rights?
c) If that would be the case, why not station artillery in Capia and shoot into Morovia? (And yes, that is an exageration).Again, sorry if that seems overly aggressive, but I am a bit irritated by the apparent lack of understanding of basic diplomatic concepts.