To clarify, is it exactly 80%, or at least 80%? I didn't reproduce the stated solution either way.
Exactly 80%. I tried doing this question, and through weapons-grade bullshitting, I ended up with 264/1024.
There are 3 possible cases:
1. One Section I question, two ” II questions
2. Two ” I questions, one ” II questions
3. Three ” I questions.
For Case 1:
(4C1 * (0.25)(0.75)3) * ((0.5)2*(0.5)0)
=27/256
For Case 2:
(4C2(0.25)2(0.75)2)*(2C1(0.5)(0.5))
= 27/256
For Case 3:
4C3 * (0.25)3(0.75)
= 3/64
Add all 3 cases:
= 264/1024
= 33/128
= ~26%
I can see a possible error. For the "3 from group 1" option, you have to multiply that by the chance of getting zero from group 2.
Breaking it down into English, so I can get a handled on it.
The chance of getting 1 right from group 1 is 1/4 * 3/4 * 3/4 * 3/4, all times 4. But you have to multiply that by the chance of getting 2 right from group 2, which is 1/4. So you get 27/256 for option 1, definitely.
For option 2, the chance of 2 right group 1 is 1/4 * 1/4 * 3/4 * 3/4 but there are 6 ways to distribute. That's times 1/2 for the 2/4 ways you can get 1 right in group 2, so 27/256 again.
For option 3, the chance of 3 right from group 1 is 1/4 * 1/4 * 1/4 * 3/4 times 4, but divided by four since you also have to get zero right in group 2. So 3/256
So, I get 57/256 from this.
Note, that this one change reconciles what Rolan7 and methylatedspirit got. All I can think is that there may be some error in how the original question was printed, or the interpretation.
For McTraveller, I have a hunch you need some terms with the 3/4 chance of not getting right answers in group 1 in there.