Why is a corporation that distributes the creative work of a third party entitled to prevent others from recreating and distributing those materials themselves?
Because the corporation has negotiated with said third party for either exclusive or semi-exclusive right to
control of distribution (instead of simply distribution)... ideally, anyway.
The non-ideal aspects meander off into (currently utterly bullshit) copyright law, copyright theory, draconian contracts, and a cultural system that's been somewhat heavily structured by those very companies demanding control over distribution as part of their services... among who knows what else.
People are continually complaining about a lack of facts about lost revenue; they are there, merely ignored.
Well, some facts are
That study, at least from what you presented, came to the (should be blindingly obvious, but very, almost violently, underplayed*) conclusion that piracy doesn't take money out of the general (luxury/entertainment) economy, but at least that bit didn't address possible financial damage to
individual companies; the 'lost sales' in relation to specific titles would be covered under something like that. There's a point of discussion on the subject of smaller scale damage, obviously.
It's a bloody good start, though!
*Not by anyone here, so far! But the messages from larger media corps definitely like to give the frightening message that piracy is somehow crippling the entertainment industry and making money magically disappear from the economy. Which is so hilariously fallacious that message
should be taken as sheer nonsense, but it's often taken more seriously than it has any right to be
I have some facts to contribute.
Problem: All ancedotal and not statistically significant
Important, yes, but the individual scale impact of piracy is fairly minor; again, on the small scale it's not significantly more immoral or damaging than sharing a book or movie. If there's trouble, it's going to be on a much larger scale.
Something to think about: Ok. World of Goo had a 90% piracy rate. So let's say a hypothetical 10,000 copies were sold and 90,000 copies pirated. Why do you automatically assume that piracy had a negative effect on the number of copies sold?
In cript's defense, I don't think he's necessarily assuming that; the conclusion he's building to
is seems to be that among that hypothetical 90k pirated copies,
at least some are lost sales. The piracy
might have had a net benefit, but it's fairly reasonable to assume there was some loss, too.